A pumpkin genetics question....
- To: pumpkins@mallorn.com
- Subject: A pumpkin genetics question....
- From: S*@aol.com
- Date: Thu, 1 Oct 1998 15:04:34 EDT
O.K., I spent a few minutes reading a bit about botany of pumpkins, etc.
So what I wanted to know is, since pumpkin flowers are zygomorphic,
(asymmetrical/bilaterally symmetrical corolla), more genes are involved, in
the morphogenesis of flowers, in producing them than actinomorphic corollas,
right?
Does this mean a better chance of spontaneous mutation, or less controllable
results from artificially induced mutation? If a pollen mutation was
artificially induced in the progametrophyte without damaging the supratectate
sculpturing of the exine, which would modify the cytokinin or some other
factor in the endosperm formed from the triploid nucleus produced by the sperm
that unites with two of the three nuclei in the pollen tube, how would that
influence that gamephyte generation? Or would it be optimal to instead attempt
to induce mutation in the sperm nuclei that unites with the egg at syngamy in
the female gametophyte, therefore affecting the zygote that becomes the
sporophye embryo? Has anyone done experiments where the balance or amounts of
hormones in the endosperm was augmented in any way, (would mutation of the
sperm that produces the triploid nucleus even cause any changes in the
endosperm's hormonal makeup?), and what were the results? Also, what is the
likelihood that a mutation of either of these types would result in flowers
with undifferentiated perianths (tepals)? (Since the mutation might mess with
the genes that form the calyx, and I think that the endosperm hormones in
flowers with tepals are different from those that have dichotomous venation
and an undifferentiated mesophyll).
Well, I apologize if this question is stupid, but I really don't know much
about botany, so I am hoping someone on here can help me out! Thanks!
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